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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: https://www.lead2pass.com/300-320.html
Which two key components are related to one firewall per ISP design option for e-commerce? (Choose two.)
A. It is a common approach to single-homing.
B. This approach is commonly used in large sites.
C. Any failure on an edge router results in a loss of session.
D. It has one NAT to two ISP-assigned blocks.
E. It is difficult to set up and administer.
What is the latest Cisco high-availability solution?
Which two options are VRF components. (Choose two.)
Which two options are storage topologies? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the ASA is true?
A. The management interface is reachable only from VLAN 30.
B. The management interface is reachable only from VLAN 40.
C. It is running in transparent mode.
D. It is running in routed mode.
Which statement about IPS and IDS solutions is true?
A. IDS and IPS read traffic only in inline mode.
B. IDS and IPS read traffic only in promiscuous mode.
C. An IDS reads traffic in inline mode, and an IPS reads traffic in promiscuous mode.
D. An IDS reads traffic in promiscuous mode, and an IPS reads traffic in inline mode.
Which NAC design model matches the following definitions?
- NAS is deployed centrally in the core or distribution layer.
- Users are multiple hops away from the Cisco NAS.
- After authentication and posture assessment, the client traffic no longer passes through the Cisco NAS.
- PBR is needed to direct the user traffic appropriately.
A. Layer 3 in-band virtual gateway
B. Layer 3 out-of-band with addressing
C. Layer 2 in-band virtual gateway
D. Layer 2 out-of-band virtual gateway
Passing traffic mode
· Virtual gateway (bridged mode)
· Real IP gateway (routed mode)
Client access mode
· Layer 2 (client is adjacent to the Cisco NAC Server)
· Layer 3 (client is multiple hops from the Cisco NAC Server)
Traffic flow model
· In-band (Cisco NAC Server is always in-line with user traffic)
· Out-of-band (Cisco NAC Server is in-line only during authentication, posture assessment, and remediation)
Which option is a recommended firewall topology?
A. using two firewalls with stateful failover switched mode
B. using one firewall with NAT enabled in transparent mode
C. using two firewalls in active/active mode
D. using one firewall with stateful failover enabled in routed mode
Which three options are recommended practices when configuring VTP? (Choose three.)
A. Set the switch to transparent mode.
B. Set the switch to server mode.
C. Enable VLAN pruning.
D. Disable VLAN pruning.
E. Specify a domain name.
F. Clear the domain name.
Which four primary attributes define a WAN service? (Choose four.)
B. bursting capacity
E. QoS classes and policies
G. multicast support
Which option does the FabricPath technology use to create loop-free Layer 2 networks?
C. fabric tags
TTL ends up a looping packet but the loop can still be there.
Fabric path uses IS-IS and the concept of “switch-ids” which could refer to “fabric tags”.
Which Cisco NAC Appliance component is optional?
A. NAC Appliance Manager
B. NAC Appliance Server
C. NAC Appliance Agent
D. NAC Appliance Policy Updates
“The Cisco NAC Agent is an optional component of the Cisco NAC solution.”
Which option describes the effect of using softphones instead of VoIP handsets on QoS implementation for the voice traffic?
A. It provides a Layer 2 CoS marking in the frames that can be used for QoS implementation.
B. Using softphones means that 802.1Q tagging must be configured between the PC and the switch.
C. The voice traffic of softphones is mixed with data traffic of PC on the access VLAN.
D. By using softphones, the implementation of a QoS depends only on trusting DSCP markings set by the PC.
Which part of the Layer 3 header is used to identify a flow in NetFlow but it is not used for NBAR?
A. source port
C. protocol type
D. source IP
Which three options are features of IP SLAs? (Choose three.)
A. enables verification of service guarantees
B. dynamically adjusts QoS parameters
C. validates network performance and metrics
D. initiates failover for saturated links
E. proactively identifies network related issues
Which statement is correct regarding NBAR and NetFlow?
A. NetFlow uses five key fields for the flow.
B. NBAR examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
C. NetFlow examines data in Layers 3 and 4.
D. NBAR examines data in Layers 2 through 4.
E. NetFlow examines data in Layers 2 through 4.
NetFlow is a passive technology that monitors network activity, typically from OSI Layers 2 through 4.
NBAR is an active technology that can be used to validate or reclassify ToS marking based on packet inspection in Layers 3 through 7.
Which two statements are correct regarding Flex Links? (Choose two.)
A. An interface can belong to multiple Flex Links.
B. Flex Links operate only over single pairs of links.
C. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type.
D. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated.
E. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second.
Flex Links are a pair of a Layer 2 interfaces (ports or port channels), where one interface is configured to act as a backup to the other. Flex Links are typically configured in service-provider or enterprise networks where customers do not want to run STP. Flex Links provide link-level redundancy that is an alternative to Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). STP is automatically disabled on Flex Links interfaces. A backup link does not have to be the same type as the active link.
Which technology allows centralized storage services to be shared across different VSANs?
What is the term for a logical SAN which provides isolation among devices physically connected to the same fabric?
E. Enhanced ISL
In a base e-Commerce module design, which routing statement is correct?
A. Routing is mostly static.
B. Hardcoded IP addresses are used to support failover.
C. Inbound servers use the CSM or ACE as the default gateway.
D. VLANs between the access layer switches are used for FHRP protocols.
“Base Design Routing Logic Routing in this e-commerce module design is mostly static, using VIP addresses to support failover.”
What is the recommended radius of a cell for a voice-ready wireless network?
A. 6 dBm
B. 7 dBm
C. 19 dBm
D. 5 dBm
E. -67 dBm
F. -86 dBm
“Recommendations for VoWLAN deployment include the following:
A cell radius of 67 dBm, with a separation of 19 dBm for cells on the same channel.”
Which of these practices should you follow when designing a Layer 3 routing protocol?
A. Never peer on transit links.
B. Build squares for deterministic convergence.
C. Build inverted U designs for deterministic convergence.
D. Summarize routes at the distribution to the core to limit EIGRP queries or OSPF LSA propagation.
Which two statements about Layer 3 access designs are correct? (Choose two.)
A. IP address space is difficult to manage.
B. Broadcast and fault domains are increased.
C. Convergence time is fractionally slower than STP.
D. Limits on clustering and NIC teaming are removed.
E. Fast uplink convergence is supported for failover and fallback.
Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
E. The TCO is higher because of the cost of director class storage switches.
Which of these is least important when determining how many users a NAS can support?
B. number of plug-ins per scan
C. total number of network devices
D. number of checks in each posture assessment
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